Peer response due today | Psychology homework help

Each response to another must be at least 175 words in length.
If asked to post your opinion or reaction/reflection as part of an initial discussion post, you must still incorporate reference support. While opinions and reactions are personal and subjective in nature, they need references and citations for support. This approach reflects knowledge acquisition as well as application and synthesis of content. In other words, always support your work with resources. This is also applies to article reviews and/or reflection exercises?you still must have at least two references?.one of which will always be your textbook.
(Cohen, R. J., & Swerdlik, M. E. (2018). Psychological testing and assessment: An introductionÿto tests and measurement (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill)
(Peer response)
1. ÿDescribe what these scores mean.
Internal consistency reliability coefficient of .92 means that excellent reliability and it is an acceptable test to give. Our textbook defines reliability as, ?the proportion of the total variance attributed to true variance? (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018 p. 142). Without reliability tests lack consistency therefore they become less useful because they also lack validity (Drummond & Jones, 2006).Tests are considered reliability if they produce the same results each time the test is used. Alternate forms of reliability coefficient .82 means the test is still reliable because the score is considered high, however, the test is not as reliable as the test with the internal consistency reliability coefficient .92 (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018). Lastly, test-retest reliability coefficient .50 tests the average of the two scores of the test that were given and that is considered a low score.
2. ÿSynthesize all of these interpretations into a final evaluation about this test utility or usefulness & Synthesize all of these interpretations into a final evaluation about this test’s utility or usefulness.
The internal consistency reliability coefficient .92 means 92 % of the time this test produces accurate results, that leaves only a chance for error 8% of the time. The alternate forms reliability coefficient .82 means that 82% of the time this test produces accurate results, that score is still high enough for reliability however, not as high as the internal consistency reliability coefficient. Lastly, the test-retest reliability coefficient .50 means that 50% of the time this test produces accurate results, which is the least reliability of the 3 test types (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018). All and all, each of these tests would be useful however, in my field of Applied Behavior Analysis I find the test-retest score to be most interesting because I would like to see growth and this test is given in two separate parts. Test 1 and then later, Test 2, allowing to see improvement in the test participate. It sounds as thought test-retest is made to show growth, and that is what we shrive for in my field.
3. ÿExplain whether these data are acceptable
Internal consistency reliability coefficient .92 alternate forms reliability coefficient .82 is an extremely reliable data point, however. The test-retest .50 is less reliable (Cohen & Swerdlik, 2018).
4. ÿExplain under what conditions they may not be acceptable and under what conditions, if any, they may be appropriate.
Test-retest reliability coefficient may not always be the best test to use because it shows change over time and sometimes that is not what we need. Alternate forms reliability coefficient may not be appropriate sometimes because it becomes difficult to develop two equivalent tests to administer. Lastly, internal consistency reliability coefficient is only good in instances where the test is homogenous, if the test is not the data may not be acceptable (Drummond & Jones, 2006).

Perceived crises influencing addiction | Psychology homework help

ÿIn a 2 ? 3 page APA-formatted paper, address the following:

Provide a description of at least two factors outside an individual?s control that could result in a perceived crisis and explain how that perception might affect propensity toward addiction.
Describe a model of crisis intervention that might be most effective in addressing these factors and explain why.
Explain why that model might be more successful than other models.

Please use the attachments to complete the assignmentÿ

Perfect systems | Business & Finance homework help

Perfect systems borrow $94,000 cash on May 15, 2011, by signing a 60-day, 12% notes.
1. On what date this note mature2. Suppose the face value of note equals $94,000, the principal of the loan. Prepare the journal entries to record (a) issuance of the note and (b) payment of the note at maturity.
10-1Note round amounts to the nearest whole dollar; assume no reversing entries are usedOn January 1, 2011, Kidman Enterprise issues a bond that have a $1,700,000 Par value, mature in 20 years and pay 9% interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31. The bonds are sold at par.1. How much interests will Kidman pay (in cash) to the bondholders every six months?2. Prepare journal entries to record (a) the issuance of bonds on January 1, 2011; (b) The first interest payment on June 30, 2011; and (c) the second interest payment on December 31, 2011. 3. Prepare the journal entry for issuance assuming the bonds are issued at (a) 98 and (b) 102.
10-16
Ramirez Company is considering a project that will require a $500,000 loan. It presently has total liabilities of $200,000 and total asset of $620,0001. Compute Ramirez?s (a) present debt-to-equity ratio and (b) the debt-to-equity ratio assuming it borrows $500,000 to fund the project.2. Evaluate and discuss the level of risk involved if Ramirez borrows the funds to pursue the project.
11-2
Aloha Corporation issues 6,000 shares of its common stock for $144,000 cash on February 20. Prepare journal entries to record this event under each of the following separate situations.1. The stock has neither par nor stated value.2. The stock has $20 par value3. The stock has $8 stated value

Personality disorders | Psychology homework help

ÿ
NPSP shows the spectrum of normalcy for the 14 personality traits identified within that book. The traits: Leisurely, Self Sacrificing, Aggressive, Serious correspond with which PDs (on that page)?ÿ
These PDs are no longer recognized by the DSM. Do some digging. See if you can find any information on them on the internet (cite your source), the older version of the DSMs had a few of these listed in the index so maybe try there. When you find that information use it the same way you did in the previous discussions to compare the personality traits to the actual disorders. Discuss where normalcy stops and pathologies begin. Do any of these PDs sound similar to the ones we are studying? Also do you think these PDs should be resurrected, why or why not?

Need in 20 minutes | Business & Finance homework help

ÿ
Quiz
Question 1 (2.5 points)
Saved
1. You bought 100 shares of stock at $20 each. At the end of the year, you received a total of $400 in dividends, and your stock was worth $2,500 total.ÿ What was your total percentage return?
Question 1 options:
A) 20%
B)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 45%
C)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 50%
D)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 90%
E) 10%
Question 2 (2.5 points)
2. Systemic risk does not include
Question 2 options:
A) Labor strike in the oil industry
B)ÿ Inflation
C)ÿ GDP growth rate
D)ÿ Government Debt Burden
E)ÿ All of the above are systemic risk
Question 3 (2.5 points)
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3. The ?total? risk of a stock held in isolation is measured in finance by:
Question 3 options:
A) diversifiable risk.
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿB) Beta risk
C) expected return
D) standard deviation (or variance)
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿE) the market risk premium
Question 4 (2.5 points)
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4. ÿIf the expected return to the market portfolio is 12%, the risk-free rate is 4%, then what is the market risk premiumn?
Question 4 options:
A) 8%
B) 12%
C) 16%
D)ÿ 1%
E)ÿ Not enough information to tell.
Question 5 (2.5 points)
Saved

A stock beta of zero would be expected to have a rate of return equal to

Question 5 options:
A)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ US T-Bill rate
B)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ the market rate
C)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ the S&P 500 rate
D)ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ the average Corporate AAA bond rate
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿE)ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿthe average Municipal AAA bond rate
Question 6 (2.5 points)
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6. What is the portfolio beta if 20% of your money is invested in Stock A beta of 2.3, 30% of your money is invested in Stock B beta of 0.7, and 50% of your money is invested in Stock C beta of 1.6?
Question 6 options:
A) 1.47
B) 1.53
C) 1.6
D) 4.6
E) 3.0
Question 7 (2.5 points)
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7. If a stock?s beta is greater than 1 then it means
Question 7 options:
A) The stock has the same risk as the overall market.
B) The stock has more systematic risk than the overall market.
C) The stock has less systematic risk than the overall market.
D) The stock has more unsystematic risk as the overall market.
E) The stock has less unsystematic risk as the overall market.
Question 8 (2.5 points)
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8. Consider the stock of Davidson Company, whose next dividend will be $2.ÿ The dividends will grow at a constant annual rate of 5%, forever.ÿ The required return is a 12% on the company?s stock, what is its price?
Question 8 options:
A) $30
B) $46.54
C) $28.57
D) $10
E) $2
Question 9 (2.5 points)
9. Which of the following statements is false?
Question 9 options:
A) Dividends are not a liability of the firm.
B) Most preferred dividends are cumulative.
C) Preferred stock does not generally carry voting rights.
D) Coupons are not a liability of the firm
E) The US equity markets have been found to be semi-strong efficient.
Question 10 (2.5 points)
10. ÿÿPortfolio diversification reduces risk because of the ______ between assets.
Question 10 options:
A) variance
B) risk premium
C) risk-free rate
D) covariance between assets
E) capital gains yield
Question 11 (2.5 points)
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11.ÿ If the coupon rate is 6%, the YTM is 7.4% then what would be the semi-annual coupon?
Question 11 options:
A) $60
B)ÿ $37
C)ÿ $14
D)ÿ $74
E)ÿ $30
Question 12 (2.5 points)
Saved

A bond pays a coupon of $120.ÿ If the yield to maturity is 15%, then the bond will sell at a ___________.ÿ If the yield to maturity is 13%, then the bond will sell at a __________.

Question 12 options:
A) discount; discount
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿB) premium; premium
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ C) discount; premium
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ D) premium; discount
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿE) par value; premium
Question 13 (2.5 points)
13. If Dell Computer expects to issue a bond that has a yield of 5.8% and the city of Austin is issuing a municipal bond that has a yield of 5%.ÿ What tax bracket must you be in to be indifferent between owning these two bonds?
Question 13 options:
A) 10.16%
B)ÿ 5%
C) 13.79%
D) 0.8%
E) 86.21%
Question 14 (2.5 points)
14. A callable bond held by an investor is riskier than a non-callable bond for the same company with the same maturity, and thus the interest rate is higher on the callable bond.
Question 14 options:
A) True
B) False
C) They are the same rate
Question 15 (2.5 points)
15. Which of the following is false?
Question 15 options:
A) There is an extremely large number of bond issues in themarketplace but generally low daily volume in single issues traded.
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ B) Lower coupon rate bonds have more interest rate risk than higherÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿcoupon bonds.
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿC) Finding the YTM for a bond involves the trial-n-error process.
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿD) Creditors have legal recourse if interest or principal payments areÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ missed.
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ E) ÿZero Coupon bonds sell at par value.
Question 16 (2.5 points)
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16. ÿIf the data shows that the financial market is Strong-form Efficient, then investors cannot make an above average rate of return (abnormal rate of return) consistently by using
Question 16 options:
A.) Inside information
B) Public information
C) Historical information
D) All the above (A) ? (C)
E)ÿ Only (B) and (C)
Question 17 (2.5 points)
17. Which of the following is false?
Question 17 options:
A) Stocks move on the non-surprise component of announcements.
B) The historical risk premium for large company stocks exceeds that for small company stocks.
C) The return distribution for large corporate bonds is bigger than for large corporate stocks.
D) The variance of the portfolio is just the sum weighted variances of the individual stocks in the portfolio.
E) All the above are false.
Question 18 (2.5 points)
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18. If 25% of your money is invested in Stock A 6% expected return, 55% of your money in Stock B expected return of -4%, and 20% of your money is invested in Stock C n expected return of 8%, then what is the expected return for the portfolio?
Question 18 options:
A) 10%
B) 5.3%
C) 0.9%
D) 16%
E)ÿ ÿ9%
Question 19 (2.5 points)
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19. The returns for Tapit.com over the last 3 years are given below.ÿ Assuming no dividends were paid, what was the 3-year ?average? Holding period return for Tapit?ÿ Given the following information:ÿ
ÿÿÿÿÿ Year 1 return = 12%
ÿÿÿÿÿ Year 2 return = – 8%
ÿÿÿÿÿ Year 3 return = – 1%
Question 19 options:
A) 3%
B) 0.665%
C) 6.65%
D) 1%
E) 1.007%
Question 20 (2.5 points)
Saved
20. Suppose the U.S. T-bill rate is 1.2%, the market risk premium is 6.5%, the standard deviation for the stock is 3.18, and the beta for Stock XYZ is 2.8. What is the expected return to the market portfolio?
Question 20 options:
A) 7.7%
B) 5.3%
C) 6.5%
D) 18.2%
E) 3.7%
Question 21 (2.5 points)
Saved
21. Warren Buffett expects a 6% return on Goldman Sack?s preferred stock, and the dividend is expected to be $1.30 every quarter, what is the fair price for this preferred stock per share?
Question 21 options:
A) $43.333
B)ÿ $21.667
C) $86.667
D) $ 1.245
E) None of the above
Question 22 (2.5 points)
Saved
22. If the price for Telsa stock is $44 today, and the dividend next period is $3.50 and the price next period is expected to be $36, what is the dividend yield?
Question 22 options:
A)ÿÿ 18.182%
B) – 18.182%
C)ÿÿÿÿ 7.955%
D)ÿÿÿ 22.22%
E) ÿ– 10.228%
Question 23 (2.5 points)
23. The company TechnoFin.com is not expected to pay a dividend over the next fifteen years and you will hold it for just three years, yet it sells for a positive price. ÿWhy?
Question 23 options:
A) The price is wrong it should sell for zero.
B) Your dividend yield is positive.
C) Your capital appreciation is positive.
D) Your friend that sold it to you said it was worth it, and so it is.
E)ÿ The total return is negative.
Question 24 (2.5 points)
Saved
24. Consider the stock of Trader Joe Inc., whose dividends are expected to be $3 every six months indefinitely.ÿ The market requires an 8% return on the company?s stock, what is its price?
Question 24 options:
A) $ 6.25
B) $46.54
C) $28.57
D) $75.00
E) $225
Question 25 (2.5 points)
Saved
25. Long-term bonds have more interest rate risk than short term bonds.
Question 25 options:
A) True
B) False
C) they have the same risk
Question 26 (2.5 points)
Saved
26. Which of the following is false?
Question 26 options:
A) Risk is the absence of knowledge of the actual outcome of an event before it happens.
B) Risk to an investor in the financial markets is the volatility of the price.
C) The greater the potential reward, the greater the risk.
D) Stocks are traded more than bonds.
E) Most undeveloped countries do not have at least semi-strong efficient capital markets.
Question 27 (2.5 points)
Saved

What is the portfolio weight for Amazon if you invest $4,000 in it, $4,500 in Boeing, $7,000 in Home Depo?

Question 27 options:
A) 0.333
B) 0.400
C) 25
D) 0.258
E) 0.267
Question 28 (2.5 points)

Given the following stocks which can you say is true?

Expected Return ÿÿVariance
ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ Stock Aÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ8%ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.359
ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ Stock Bÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ8%ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.597
ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ Stock Cÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ 10%ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.786
Question 28 options:
A) All investors should prefer Stock A to Stock C
B) All investors should prefer Stock B to Stock A
C) All investors should prefer Stock C to Stock B
D) All investors should prefer stock A to Stock B
E) We cannot say any of the above statements.
Question 29 (6 points)
29. Starbucks, Inc. just paid a dividend of $10.45. You expect that dividends will grow by 3 percent for the next year, then you expect dividends will stay flat at $4.70 for eight ÿyears, and then after that dividends grow at1.8% rate indefinitely, what would you be willing to pay for a share of stock if the required return is 6 percent?
Question 29 options:
A) $152.973
B) $105.122
C) $102.661
D) $104.826
E) $153.269
Question 30 (6 points)
30. Suppose you have predicted the following returns for Apple Inc. stock in three possible states of nature.ÿ What is the standard deviation of Apple Stock?
State ÿState Probability Apple Returns
Boomÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ 0.4ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ4.4%
Normalÿ ÿ ÿ0.2ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ 6%
Bustÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ– 2%
Question 30 options:
A)ÿ 2.16
B) 2.9
C) 0.004
D) 0.0004
E) 0.034467
Question 31 (6 points)
Saved

You are thinking of purchasing one of Jittery Joe?s Coffee Shop?s twenty -year bond that has twelve years left to maturity, it has a coupon rate of 5.80 percent and makes quarterly payments.ÿ If the YTM on these bonds is 5.4 percent, what is the current bond price?

Question 31 options:
A) $1,000
B) $1,035.158
C) $509.795
D) $1,048.20
E) $924.019
Question 32 (6 points)
Saved
32. Suppose the U.S. T-bill rate is 0.6%, the market risk premium is 3.3%, the standard deviation for the stock is 2.08, and the beta for Stock XYZ is 1.8.ÿ What is the expected return for Stock XYZ?
Question 32 options:
A) 5.7%
B) 5.94%
C) 6.54%
D) 7.464%
E) 3.3%
Question 33 (6 points)

If you have three stocks, with the following variances and betas, (A) which stock has the most risk; (B) which stock has the most systematic risk; and (C) which stock should have the highest expected return?

Variance ÿBeta
Stock A ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.0045ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 1.9
Stock Bÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.1456 ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 2.2
Stock Cÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 0.0023ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ 3.1
Question 33 options:
A) most risk Stock B; most systematic risk Stock C; highest expected return Stock A
B) most risk Stock C; most systematic risk Stock C; highest expected return Stock C
C) most risk Stock B; most systematic risk Stock C; highest expected return Stock C
D) most risk Stock B; most systematic risk Stock A; highest expected return Stock B
E) most risk Stock C; most systematic risk Stock A; highest expected return stock A

Nurs 6501 week 1 chapter 01 cellular biology huether & mccance

ÿChapter 01: Cellular Biology Huether & McCance: Understanding Pathophysiology, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student? a. A single circular chromosome b. A nucleus c. Free-floating nuclear material d. No organelles The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles. REF: p. 2 2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? a. Metabolic absorption b. Communication c. Secretion d. Respiration The cell?s ability to absorb oxygen is referred to as respiration while its communication ability involves maintenance of a steady dynamic state, metabolic absorption provides nutrition, and secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances. REF: p. 2 3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus Cytoplasm The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within the cell?s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration, while ribosomes are involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the cell. REF: p. 2 4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell?s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself? a. Peripheral membrane proteins b. Integral membrane proteins c. Glycoproteins d. Cell adhesion molecules Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein marks cells and does not float. REF: p. 7 5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors? a. Oxygen b. Ribosomes c. Amphipathic lipids d. Ligands Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane. REF: p. 9 6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer? a. Decreased fibronectin b. Increased collagen c. Decreased elastin d. Increased glycoproteins Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing them to travel or metastasize. REF: p. 10 7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact? a. Cell junction b. Gap junction c. Desmosome d. Tight junction Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell. Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight junctions are associated with cellular communication. REF: p. 11 8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurohormonal d. Hormonal Paracrine signaling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of glucagon. None of the other options involve signaling that is associated local chemical mediator like insulin. 9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a: a. solute. b. substrate. c. receptor. d. ribosome. Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and any of the remaining options. REF: p. 16 10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse?s response is based on the knowledge that the problem is result of a deficiency of: a. GTP b. AMP c. ATP d. GMP When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are involved in muscle contraction. REF: p. 16 11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP? a. Digestion b. Glycolysis c. Oxidation d. Citric acid cycle While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP. REF: p. 16 12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the nurse include? a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport c. S phase, G phase, and M phase d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular catabolism. REF: p. 16 13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? a. Electron-transport chain b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Anaerobic glycolysis d. Oxidative phosphorylation When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance. REF: p. 16 14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Active transport Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient. REF: p. 19 15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes? a. Small lipid-soluble molecules b. Large protein molecules c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP d. Electrically charged molecules Electrolytes are electrically charged molecules. They are not lipid soluble, they are not made up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production. REF: p. 18 16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by: a. the concentration of sodium. b. plasma proteins. c. hydrostatic pressure. d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins. Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. The concentration of sodium plays a role in tonicity. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel. Membrane transporter proteins are involved in active transport within a concentration gradient. REF: p. 20 17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring: a. osmolality. b. osmolarity. c. osmotic pressure. d. oncotic pressure. Osmolality measures the number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water, or the concentration of molecules per weight of water, while osmolarity measures the number of milliosmoles per liter of solution, or the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. Osmotic pressure is the amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water. Oncotic pressure is from plasma proteins, not body fluids. REF: p. 19 18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Active transport Blood reaching the capillary bed has a hydrostatic pressure of 25?30 mm Hg, which is sufficient force to push water across the thin capillary membranes into the interstitial space. Osmosis involves the movement of fluid from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. It does not involve pressure or force. Diffusion is the passive movement of a solute from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration. Active transport involves movement up a concentration gradient. REF: p. 19 19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? a. By passive electrolyte channels b. By coupled channels c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) d. By diffusion The transporter protein ATPase is directly related to sodium and potassium transport via active transport. Electrolyte movements require energy and do not move passively, nor are they transported by diffusion. Enzymes, not electrolytes, are passed via coupled channels. REF: p. 21 20. The ion transporter that moves Na and Ca2 simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport? a. Biport b. Uniport c. Antiport d. Symport When ions are transported in one direction, it is termed symport. There is no such term as biport. Uniport refers to the movement of a single molecule. Antiport refers to the movement of molecules in the opposite direction. REF: p. 19, Figure 1-22 21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles. REF: p. 22 22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called? a. G1 b. S c. M d. G2 The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis. REF: pp. 25-26 23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation. The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate. REF: pp. 24-25 24. A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is ?70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na , and the predominant extracellular ion is K . With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential? a. K rushing into the cell b. Na rushing into the cell c. Na rushing out of the cell d. K rushing out of the cell With voltage change, potassium rushes into, not out of, the cell. Sodium movement is not related to this process. REF: pp. 24-25 25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of: a. platelets. b. epidermal cells. c. connective tissue cells. d. fibroblast cells. Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or fibroblast cells. REF: p. 27 26. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: a. anaphase. b. telophase. c. prophase. d. metaphase. Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During telophase, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the spindle fibers disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell. REF: p. 26 27. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development. b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle. c. Restrain cell growth and development. d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development. Cytokines play a major role in the regulation of tissue growth and development but do not restrain it. Cytokines help overcome intracellular braking mechanisms that restrain cell growth and promote cell growth, but they do not provide nutrients. REF: p. 26 28. A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called _____ columnar epithelium. a. simple b. ciliated simple c. stratified d. pseudostratified ciliated Ciliated simple columnar epithelium is found in the lungs. Simple columnar epithelium is found from the stomach to the anus. Stratified columnar epithelium is found in the lining of the epiglottis, part of the pharynx, the anus, and the male urethra. Pseudostratified ciliate columnar epithelium is found in the lining of the large ducts of some glands (parotid, salivary), male urethra, respiratory passages, and Eustachian tubes of the ears. REF: p. 30, Table 1-6 29. A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying a chief function of the nerve cell as: a. sensory interpretation. b. conductivity. c. maintenance of homeostasis. d. communication. Conductivity, not sensory interpretation, homeostasis, or communication, is one of the eight chief functions of nerve cells. REF: p. 2 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are: (select all that apply) a. nerve. b. epithelial. c. mucosal. d. connective. e. skeletal. f. muscle. The basic tissue types include nerve, epithelial, connective, and muscle. Mucosal is a type of epithelial cell, while skeletal is a type of connective tissue. REF: p. 27 2. Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (select all that apply) a. They contain no organelles. b. Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane. c. They contain a distinct nucleus. d. They contain histones. e. They contain a cellular membrane. The prokaryotes lack a cellular membrane that encases nuclear material, thus they have no distinct nucleus; organelles and histones are also missing. REF: p. 1ÿ

Nurs-6003 discussion 3 wk6 | Nursing homework help

Discussion assignment:
Please check out the 4 links below in order to write your discussion.
For this Discussion, you explore databases available through the Walden Library.
To Prepare:

Review the information presented in the Learning Resources for using the Walden Library, searching the databases, and evaluating online resources.
Begin searching for a peer-reviewed article that pertains to your practice area and interests you.

Assignment:
ÿUsing proper APA formatting, cite the peer-reviewed article you selected that pertains to your practice area and is of particular interest to you and identify the database that you used to search for the article. Explain any difficulties you experienced while searching for this article. Would this database be useful to your colleagues? Explain why or why not. Would you recommend this database? Explain why or why not.ÿ
https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/az.php?s=19981
https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/writingcenter/scholarly
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1750-4910.2016.tb00224.x
https://eds-b-ebscohost-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/eds/detail/detail?vid=0&sid=9dc044bc-452e-4f81-9785-9462c03bb462%40sessionmgr101&bdata=JnNpdGU9ZWRzLWxpdmUmc2NvcGU9c2l0ZQ%3d%3d#AN=28658805&db=mnh

Nurs-6003n assignment 1 | Nursing homework help

ÿÿ
Assignment: Academic Success and Professional Development Plan Part 1: Developing an Academic and Professional Network
When was the last time you read Meditation XVII of John Donne’s Devotions Upon Emergent Occasions?
Unless you are a student of seventeeth-century poetry, you may not be all that familiar with this piece. However, you may be much more familiar with one of its well-known phrases: ?No man is an island…?.
As you begin your journey toward achieving your academic and professional goals, you have a great opportunity to network cademics and professionals who can help ensure you do not travel alone. This network can help to clarify your own vision for success and can help guide you now and in the future. To paraphrase Donne, no one is an island.
Begin creating an academic and professional network by identifying which academic and professional connections and resources with which you need to collaborate to succeed in your MSN program and as a practicing nurse.
To Prepare:

Consider ÿÿÿÿÿindividuals, departments, teams, and/or resources within Walden University ÿÿÿÿÿand within your profession that you believe can support your academic and ÿÿÿÿÿprofessional success.
Identify ÿÿÿÿÿat least two academic and at least two professional individuals, ÿÿÿÿÿcolleagues, or teams that might help you succeed in your MSN program and ÿÿÿÿÿas a practicing nurse.
Download ÿÿÿÿÿthe Academic Success and Professional Development Plan Template.

The Assignment:
Academic and Professional Network
Complete Part 1 of your Academic Success and Professional Development Plan Template. Be sure to address the following:

Identify at ÿÿÿÿÿleast two academic and at least two professional ÿÿÿÿÿindividuals or teams to collaborate with to be successful in your MSN ÿÿÿÿÿprogram and as a practicing nurse.
Explain ÿÿÿÿÿwhy you selected these individuals and/or teams and how they will support ÿÿÿÿÿyour success in the MSN program and as a practicing nurse.

Military science and leadership book review

In five pagesÿ
Provide a short history of leadership within the Marine Corps incorporate the book in this section.
What is the importance of competition in the Marine Corps and how does it make marines better than our advisories? provide details from the book to support your ideas? ÿ
Highlight key concepts within the book.
How does a competitive nature help marines to be better leaders, provide details from the book to support your ideas?ÿ
Include at least 5 reference including the attached book.ÿ

On december 1, 2015, john and patty driver formed a corporation

Dec. 1

Issued to John and Patty Driver 20,000 shares of capital stock in exchange for a total of $200,000 cash.

Dec. 1

Purchased for $240,000 all of the equipment formerly owned by Rent-It. Paid $140,000 cash and issued a one-year note payable for $100,000. The note, plus all 12-months of accrued interest, are due November 30, 2016.

Dec. 1

Paid $12,000 to Shapiro Realty as three months’ advance rent on the rental yard and office formerly occupied by Rent-It.

Dec. 4

Purchased office supplies on account from Modern Office Co., $1,000. Payment due in 30 days. (These supplies are expected to last for several months; debit the Office Supplies asset account.)

Dec. 8

Received $8,000 cash as advance payment on equipment rental from McNamer Construction Company. (Credit Unearned Rental Fees.)

Dec. 12

Paid salaries for the first two weeks in December, $5,200.

Dec. 15

Excluding the McNamer advance, equipment rental fees earned during the first 15 days of December amounted to $18,000, of which $12,000 was received in cash.

Dec. 17

Purchased on account from Earth Movers, Inc., $600 in parts needed to repair a rental tractor. (Debit an expense account.) Payment is due in 10 days.

Dec. 23

Collected $2,000 of the accounts receivable recorded on December 15.

Dec. 26

Rented a backhoe to Mission Landscaping at a price of $250 per day, to be paid when the backhoe is returned. Mission Landscaping expects to keep the backhoe for about two or three weeks.

ÿ
Dec. 26

Paid biweekly salaries, $5,200.

Dec. 27

Paid the account payable to Earth Movers, Inc., $600.

Dec. 28

Declared a dividend of 10 cents per share, payable on January 15, 2016.

Dec. 29

Susquehanna Equipment Rentals was named, along with Mission Landscaping and Collier Construction, as a co-defendant in a $25,000 lawsuit filed on behalf of Kevin Davenport. Mission Landscaping had left the rented backhoe in a fenced construction site owned by Collier Construction. After working hours on December 26, Davenport had climbed the fence to play on parked construction equipment. While playing on the backhoe, he fell and broke his arm. The extent of the company’s legal and financial responsibility for this accident, if any, cannot be determined at this time. (Note:ÿThis event does not require a journal entry at this time, but may require disclosure in notes accompanying the statements.)

Dec. 29

Purchased a 12-month public-liability insurance policy for $9,600. This policy protects the company against liability for injuries and property damage caused by its equipment. However, the policy goes into effect on January 1, 2016, and affords no coverage for the injuries sustained by Kevin Davenport on December 26.

Dec. 31

Received a bill from Universal Utilities for the month of December, $700. Payment is due in 30 days.

Dec. 31

Equipment rental fees earned during the second half of December amounted to $20,000, of which $15,600 was received in cash.